Icemoon:
So one question asked is, why use ehad when yahid is a better choice?
But are you sure, that yahid is indeed a better choice?
What’s your point?
Deut 6:4, shama Yisra'el Y@hovah elohiym echad Y@hovah
It uses echad. My previous post said echad (ehad).
Are you suggesting to replace the Word of God with a better word?
Or have you misunderstood him? His point is that God consulted
the heavenly hosts before the creation of man, c.f. Let us (us ==
God and heavenly hosts). This is the view of the Jewish
commentators.
Maybe i have. But certainly, only God the Father was involved in creation as verse 27 indicates. So, verse 26, "let us make man in our image" would sound as if the "us" is involved in the process
of creation. Definitely, angels are not involved in creation.
Anyway, your analysis is outdated. You'd do well to consult
what's the preeminent position of Gen 1:26 by Christian scholars.
Do a search on the majestic plural.
Outdated? Based on what? My NIV bible says that too, i dont blame you. But it's only one view out of many. I'm not sure updated certainly means better. Speaking of which, as to why God the Son was not openly declared, Christianity is based on progressive revelation (would that be considered updated?). Or Gregory Nazianzen puts it this way,
“The
Old Testament proclaimed the Father openly, and the Son more obscurely.
The New manifested the Son, and suggested the deity of the Spirit. Now
the Spirit himself dwells among us, and supplies us with a clearer
demonstration of himself. For it was not safe, when the Godhead of the
Father was not yet acknowledged, plainly to proclaim the Son; nor when
that of the Son was not yet received to burden us further … with the
Holy Spirit … It was necessary that, increasing little by little, and,
as David says, by ascensions from glory to glory, the full splendor of
the Trinity should gradually shine forth.” Orations 31.26
Anyway, searching for majesty plural gave me this:
Have you read my reply properly?
The plural, therefore, inherently suggests either the divine majesty or that fullness of his being that was to find its ultimate theological expression in the doctrine of the Trinity.
There are no other examples (in OT Heb) of a monarch using plural verbs or plural pronouns of himself in such a “plural of majesty,” how do you substantiate it?
Even the closest, Ezra 4:18, which has that construction is in Aramaic. Not only is it poor scholarship to build a case for a grammatical construction in Hebrew on the grounds of this Aramaic text. Even so, the Ezra passage does not necessarily contain a singular royal subject linked to a plural verb-form. If the plural of majesty were a regular Hebrew idiom, why is the singular "me" in the same line?
From the Genesis Rabbah about Genesis 1:26:
Rabbi Samuel ben Nahman said in Rabbi Jonathan's name: "When Moses was
engaged in writing the Torah, he had to write the work of each day.
When he came to the verse, AND GOD SAID; LET US MAKE MAN, etc., he
said: 'Sovereign of the Universe! Why dost Thou furnish an excuse to
heretics?' (for maintaining a plurality of deity). 'Write,' replied He;
'whoever wishes to err may err.'"
Even the earliest Jewish sources agreed in the plurality.