Expository Notes on John
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I would like to share to you the work of a Bible scholar Dr. Gadiel Isidro. They are expository Notes on the book of John. It's main purpose according to the writer, Dr. Gadiel Isidro, is in accord with John's purpose in writing the book. It is written that a) you may belive that Jesus is the Son of God and b) through believing on Him you might have eternal life.
Joh 20:31 but these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in His name.
It is not a verse by verse commentary. Only pertinent verses were commented upon. Verses which the writer felt relevant to the purpose. Here I would also like to solicit the respect of non-Christians here in this thread. Please refrain from posting in this thread anything that violates the integrity and purpose of this thread.
This commentary is given for free here in the place where i come from. I hope and pray that God will mightily use it for the edification and salvation of souls.
I will be regularly adding on and updating on this every now and then.
Notes on John by Dr. Gadiel Isidro
CHAPTER 1
Joh 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
John 1:1 . The verb “was” from the Greek "en", being in the imperfect tense in Greek grammar, speaks of the eternality of the Logos. This means that before things began, the Logos was already in existence.
The title Logos is a very important philosophical and theological term. Greek philosophers believed that the Logos was the impersonal power which holds the universe together. Alexandrian philosophers also taught that the Logos was a powerful being, but inferior to the supreme being.
But John wrote that the Logos is a distinct person who is equal in being with God. This is emphasized by the last clause of the verse which states: “…and God was the Word”.
The word God in Greek is "Theos". This has no article and it is the first word in the last clause. There is a very important rule in Greek grammar which states that “the presence of the article identifies, but its absence qualifies”.
This means that Theos in the last clause describes the Logos as God in His being, not a small god, as some groups teach. He is a distinct person, eternal and equal in being with the Father. -
I suppose he commented on context and the remaining verses are yet to be posted.
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12 But as many as received him, to them he gave authority to become the children of God, those who believe in his name:
John 1:12 The condition for becoming a child of God is to receive the Logos as God and Savior. No one will be born again unless that person believes in the deity of the Logos, who is Jesus Christ.
This act of receiving the Logos occurs only once because the tense of the verb “receive” refers to a single action. This is called the “aorist” tense in Greek. Thus after a person has genuinely received the Logos, he is born again permanently [based on the tense].
After he becomes a child of God, he becomes a continuing believer. This is the tense of the phrase “..those who believe…”. In this passage “those who believe” describes those who received and who have become children of God, not a condition for becoming a child of God, the phrase being a participle. -
13 Who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
John 1:13 This verse teaches that becoming a child of God is an act only by God and never by the efforts of any human being.
14 And the Word became flesh, and tabernacled among us, and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.
John 1:14 Some translations render the first clause “and the Word was made flesh”. This passage of course refers to the incarnation of the Logos. But the more accurate translation should be “And the Word became flesh”, the verb “became” is in the active voice. So the Word actively decided to become flesh, thus teaching again that before His incarnation, He already was in existence as a person.
The more accurate translation should be “he tabernacled” rather than “dwelt”. The tabernacle signified the presence of God. His presence here on earth radiated the presence of God, He was full of grace and truth.
The word “begotten” here does not refer to the beginning of the existence of the Logos, but to his investiture of Messianic and redemptive authority. See Psalms 2:7. -
if everyone starts an expository topic on every book of the bible .. we will have 66 new topics.Originally posted by M©+square:I suppose he commented on context and the remaining verses are yet to be posted.
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I felt that he's off by only commentating on Jn 1:1 and not the rest of the passage.Originally posted by Icemoon:if everyone starts an expository topic on every book of the bible .. we will have 66 new topics.
This is where denominational differences comes in, Emphasis onto different words / semantics / verse.
To me, is a flaw simply because it is INcomplete. -
maybe he wanted us to digest 1:1 first.Originally posted by M©+square:I felt that he's off by only commentating on Jn 1:1 and not the rest of the passage.
This is where denominational differences comes in, Emphasis onto different words / semantics / verse.
To me, is a flaw simply because it is INcomplete.
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Which is why i gave the benefit of doubt and waited.Originally posted by Icemoon:maybe he wanted us to digest 1:1 first.
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He could have typed them out by hand.Originally posted by M©+square:Which is why i gave the benefit of doubt and waited. -
18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has revealed Him.
John 1:18 The more accurate designation should be “Only Begotten Son” rather than “only begotten God” as found in some contemporary translations. Because as pointed out in v. 14 that the title “begotten” refers to investiture of Messianic and Redemptive authority, then it contradicts the designation of the Son as Messiah and Saviour if we have “only begotten God”. And John 3:16 also states that the Logos is the “Only Begotten Son”.
While other translations have the word “declared”, the Greek verb is eksegeomai which more accurately should be translated “revealed”. The Logos, the Only Begotten Son, revealed the true being of the Father, not just explained or declared.
P.S. These are expository NOTES not expository sermons. Please pardon for some technicalities [like Greek and it's accompanying technicalities]. They are like that because they are EXPOSITORY.
This type of literature is in the category of EXEGETICAL EXPOSITORY NOTES.
All of the verses are not treated exactly the same because they are NOTES not expository sermons or commentaries. They are commetaries, yes, in a way because they comment on the verses but they do not comment on every part of the verse because they are NOTES
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There are devotional commentaries like Matthew Henry, there are expository commentaries like Bible Expositors Commentary, there are Exegetical Expository commentaries like Lenski. But there also exists NOTES on the Bible like Scofields NOTEs on the Bible like Ryries Study Bible and etc.
This commentary is of the latter kind.
Every Bible scholar would not be surpised why this literature is written the way it is written. They would simply understand it from the title: NOTES on JOHN.
Thanks to some for respecting the thread.
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29 The next day John sees Jesus coming unto him, and says, Behold the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world.
36 And looking upon Jesus as he walked, he says, Behold the Lamb of God!
John 1:29,36 The title “Lamb of God” is also messianic, but the more distinctive emphasis is His redemptive work as also stated in Isaiah 53:6. It is only through the death of Logos as the Lamb of God, that we can be forgiven of our sins.
34 And I have seen , and have witnessed that this is the Son of God.
49 Nathanael answered and says to him, Rabbi, You are the Son of God; You are the King of Israel.
John 1:34, 49 Son of God is another title of the Logos. This speaks of his being as the same with God the Father. See John 5:18.
41 This one first finds his own brother Simon and he says to him, We have found the Messiah which is interpreted, the Christ.
49 Nathanael answered and says to him, Rabbi, You are the Son of God; You are the King of Israel
John 1:41, 49. As the Messiah, the Logos is the Christ or the Anointed who is also the King of Israel.
51 And he says to him, Truly, truly, I say to you, From now on, you will see heaven already opened, and the angels of God ascending and descending upon the Son of Man.
John 1:51 The Logos is also the Son of Man. This title does not refer primarily to his humanity. Instead this is another Messianic title as stated in Daniel 7:13,14.
So the Logos, who became flesh is designated as the Only Begotten Son, the Lamb of God, the Son of God, the Messiah and the Son of Man. These titles strongly argue for the eternal deity of the Logos who is Jesus Christ. -
CHAPTER 2
3 And being short of wine, the mother of Jesus says to him, They have no wine.
John 2:3 Was this fermented wine? Debate continues about the real nature of the wine used here. But the Bible clearly prohibits being drunk with wine. See Ephesians 5:18.
4 Jesus says to her, Woman, what is that to me and to you? My hour has not yet come.
John 2:4. When the Lord addressed his mother, woman, he was not showing any disrespect. The Greek word used here was a word of affection.
The meaning of the clause “what is that to me and to you” has challenged many translators and interpreters. Simply this should mean, “What can I do for you now?”
5 His mother says to the servants, Whatever he may say to you, do it.
John 2:5 This verse refutes the present teaching that when people pray to the mother of Jesus, then Jesus will have to answer. Instead she told the servants to do whatever Jesus will tell them to do.
Further, the Mary of the Bible is not the Mary to whom millions pray everyday.
11 This beginning of the signs Jesus did in Cana of Galilee, and manifested his glory; and his disciples believed in him.
John 2:11 What Jesus did at this wedding was called “sign”. The Greek word is 'semeion.' Signs done by prophets and apostles confirmed their office and their message as from God. But false prophets could also perform signs – See II Thessalonians 2:9. There is no more need today for signs to confirm the true message of God because we already have the Scriptures -
15 And after he had made a whip of ropes, he threw out of the temple all the sheep, and the oxen; and poured out the money of the money-changers, and overturned the tables;
John 2:15. The whip was made out of ropes and he did not hit the people with the whip, but used the whip to drive out the animals.
18 Therefore the Jews answered and said unto him, What sign do you show to us, that you do these things?
19 Jesus said to them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
John 2:18,19. The sign that Jesus had the authority to do what he did was his resurrection.
23 And as he was in Jerusalem at the passover, at the feast, many believed in his name, beholding the signs which he did.
24 But Jesus Himself did not believe in them, because he knew all,
25 And did not need that any should witness concerning man: for he knew what was in man.
John 2: 23-25 Faith based on physical and visible signs is not genuine and saving faith. Jesus did not accept the faith of the people for they believe only because of the signs. But faith on the sign of His resurrection is genuine and saving faith. See Romans 10:9;10 -
CHAPTER 3
1 There was a man of the Pharisees, named Nicodemus, a ruler of the Jews:
John 3:1 A Pharisee was a Jew who tried to keep all the laws given by Moses including the traditions given by the early Jewish fathers and teachers.
2 This came to Jesus by night, and said to him, Rabbi, we know that you are a teacher who has come from God: for no one can do these signs which you are doing, except God is with him.
John 3:2 Nicodemus came to see Jesus at night, not because of fear, but instead he wanted to spend more time with Jesus.
The use of the plural pronoun “we” means that Nicodemus came representing the Sanhedrin, the highest judicial body of the nation of Israel. This body of rulers was convinced that Jesus was a prophet from God because of the miracles which he performed.
3 Jesus answered and said unto him, Truly, truly, I say to you, Unless one is born from above, he cannot see the kingdom of God.
John 3:3 But Jesus told him that unless one is born from above, he cannot see the kingdom of God. While some versions translate “born again”, the more accurate translation of the Greek word anothen is “above” rather than “again”. This is the same word translated “above” in v. 31 “He who comes from above…”. The emphasis of the Lord is that one must have a heavenly birth inorder to see the kingdom of God. This happens when one receives “everlasting life” when he believes in the Only Begotten Son. See v. 16.
The verb “be born” comes from the Greek verbal form gennethe which is in the passive voice. This means that being born from above is not the work of man, but of God. See again John 1:13. Further, the tense of the verb speaks of a one-time event, not a process. So genuine spiritual birth is only a single event. -
5 Jesus answered, Truly, truly I say unto you, Unless one is born of water, even of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
John 3:5 The translation by most versions “…born of water and Spirit…” has been used as the basis of the teaching of baptismal regeneration. To them, this means, that one has to be baptized inorder to be saved. But the more accurate translation should be “…born of water, even of the Spirit…”, because many times in the New Testament the Greek conjunction kai could be translated “even”. But a much stronger basis is that in Gospel of John water is the symbol of the Holy Spirit. See John 7:37-39. -
Originally posted by Ironside:
Hi Ironside,
5 Jesus answered, Truly, truly I say unto you, Unless one is born of water, even of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
John 3:5 The translation by most versions “…born of water and Spirit…” has been used as the basis of the teaching of baptismal regeneration. To them, this means, that one has to be baptized inorder to be saved. But the more accurate translation should be “…born of water, even of the Spirit…”, because many times in the New Testament the Greek conjunction [b]kai could be translated “even”. But a much stronger basis is that in Gospel of John water is the symbol of the Holy Spirit. See John 7:37-39.[/b]
how does this change the verse. no matter how i read it, it still seems that Bptism still seems necessary for salvation -
it is, but it is not a dead law.
You see that jesus always inply this. When healing the sick on sabbath. -
yes, my friend baptism is necessary. Dry baptism that is. The Word of God is clear that wet baptism is only for those who have experienced dry baptism.Originally posted by ben1xy:Hi Ironside,
how does this change the verse. no matter how i read it, it still seems that Bptism still seems necessary for salvation
When the Lord Jesus said: "one must be born of water even of the Spirit" He was not talking of being baptized with water. The word "EVEN" is explicative. It explains the preceeding word.
"One must be born of water....."
we ask: what water are you talking about? Is this literal water or not? The proceeding words then explains:
" EVEN OF THE SPIRIT."
So water there is really a symbolism of the Holy Spirit not of literal water. It is the Holy Spirit that causes one to be born again. The Lord Jesus Himself interprets water for us in the same book. We don't have to go to doctors and theologians to find the interpretation for ourself. The best commentary of the Bible is the Bible itself.
Here read this my friend:
Joh 7:37 On the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried out, saying, "If anyone thirsts, let him come to Me and drink.
The Lord Jesus is inviting sinners here to come to Him.
38 "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water."
What a great text on salvation my friend. If you but come to Christ and trust in Him for salvation OUT OF YOUR HEART WILL FLOW FORTH RIVERS OF LIVING WATER."
What water is He talking about? Is this literal water or was the Lord Jesus talking symbolically? Read the next verse to find out what water is this?
39 But this He spoke concerning the Spirit, whom those believing in Him would receive; for the Holy Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.
Ah so this water He is talking about refers to the Holy Spirit. Not literal water. In the same book, we find the interpretation with the Lord Jesus Himself as our teacher.
So that's why after He said that one must be born of water even of the Spirit in verse 5. He only says Spirit in verse 6 as the agent of the new birth:
Joh 3:5 Jesus answered, "Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born of water even of the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.
6 "That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
I am also aware that some understood the verse my friend as a Hendiadys. Hendiadys means using words to mean the same thing. Hence, they also say 'water and the Spirit' here is one.
Others also say that 'water' means the Word of God--the Gospel of salvation--for in other instances in the NT, the Word of salvation is symbolized as water.
The Holy Spirit illuminating the repentant sinner to the Word of Salvation and thus the sinner becomes born again. 1 Cor. 2:14-16 and 1 peter 1:23, Eph. 5:26 combined. -
fair enough
similar to Catholic's practise of Baptism by intent
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14 And even as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, so must the Son of Man be lifted up:
John 3:14 The account of the lifting up of the serpent in the wilderness is found in Numbers 21:5-9. When people were bitten by the serpents, Moses was told by God to make a brazen serpent and lift up the image in a pole and all those who were bitten were healed when they just lifted up their eyes to the image of that brazen serpent.
The lifting up of the serpent was a type of the crucifixion of the Lord Jesus Christ and all those who look in faith to Christ who died on the cross will have everlasting life. -
16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Begotten Son, that every one who believes in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
John 3:16. This is the most popular verse in the whole Bible and many have received everlasting life just by reading this verse.
This verse very clearly declares that the God of Biblical revelation is a God of love. Other so-called gods of other religions are vindictive and judgmental.
Because of His love, he sent his Only Begotten Son, the Lord Jesus Christ, not just to live in this world, but to die on the cross.
Every one who believes will no longer perish but shall have everlasting life. This kind of life is enduring in quality because this comes from God. And every one receives eternal life the moment he genuinely believes. And he who receives eternal life will no longer perish in hell forever. Thus he is eternally secure in his salvation. See John 10:28,29.
17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him may be saved.
John 3:17 Why are some people condemned already? Because they have not believed in the Name of the Only Begotten Son of God. In this verse, the verb believe is pepisteuken. This verbal form is in the perfect tense which means permanent. When people have already permanently decided in their minds not to believe, then the judgment of God is already upon them. -
36 He who believes on the Son has everlasting life: and he who does not believe in the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God remains on him.
John 3:36 This verse explains further why the judgment or wrath of God remains on people. It is because they are disobedient to the Son. The verb translated “unbelieving” is apeithon. This is a present participle from the root apeitheo which means to disobey or not to believe. Because this is in the present tense, this means a continuing attitude -
CHAPTER 4
9 Then the woman of Samaria says to him, How is it that you , being a Jew, ask to drink from me, being a woman of Samaria? for the Jews have no dealings with Samaritans.
10 Jesus answered and said unto her, If you had known the gift of God, and who is saying to you, Give me to drink; you would have asked him, and he would give you living water.
14 But whoever drinks of the water that I shall give him will never thirst forever; but the water that I shall give give him will become in him a fountain of water bubbling up into everlasting life.
John 4:9 The Samaritans developed as a people when the poor Israelites who were left in the land inter-married with the foreign people who were brought in by Assyrian conquerors after the fall of Samaria in 722 B.C. They combined the worship of Jehovah with the worship of other gods. Thus the pure Jews did not want to have any dealings with the Samaritans. Today there are only about 300 Samaritans left.
John 4:10,14 What did Jesus mean when He offered “living water” to the Samaritan woman? Simply, He was talking about eternal life which a sincere believer in Jesus Christ receives when he accepts Him as his Lord and Saviour.
The Lord Jesus declared that once a person receives this “living water”, he will never thirst again. The Greek words "ou me ou me" present the strongest expression of negation. This means that once a person is genuinely saved, he will never long for another kind of life. Instead, this life will be like a bubbling fountain, demonstrating the satisfaction and excitement of a sincere believer in Jesus Christ. -
16 Jesus says to her, Go, call your husband, and come here.
26 Jesus says to her, I Am, He who is speaking to you.
John 4:16,26. When the woman declared her sincere interest in receiving this “living water”, the Lord Jesus, in a kind, diplomatic and yet the most honest way led her to accept the inner emptiness in her life. Having five husbands shows the emptiness of her life for she thought that marriage would bring the inner satisfaction in her life.
Then in v. 26, Jesus led her to reveal her hunger for the Messiah and to acknowledge that Jesus is the Messiah. At this very moment in time, she received the “living water”.
24 God is a Spirit: and those who are worshipping him must worship in spirit and in truth.
John 4:24 What did the Lord mean when he told the woman that we must worship God in spirit and in truth?
First in v. 21 the Lord told her that it is not the place which determines our true worship.
Second, in v. 24 He said that God is spirit. This means God does not dwell in and is not represented by visible physical images.
Thus the Lord meant that we worship the Lord without any visible physical representation. And this worship must be based on truth and the truth is found in the Holy Scriptures, the Word of God. -
50 Jesus says to him, Go; your son lives. And the man believed the word which Jesus said to him, and he went his way.
John 4:50 The man believed the word of the Lord before the miracle happened. Thus true faith is based on the word of God. Faith comes before miracles. Read John 20:29. Further, it was the father who believed, but it was the son who was healed.